The -i- neighbouring s also would motivate the later palatalization of the sibilant to ś. ❋ Unknown (2010)
The Altaic forms with word-initial sibilant in place of expected *t- are surely caused by pre-Altaic palatalization before high front vowels as has also apparently occurred in its second person pronominal forms. ❋ Unknown (2009)
I'd be delighted to know what your solution to this conundrum might be since it assuredly has nothing to do with +front environments or palatalization. ❋ Unknown (2009)
So it seems clear to me that the former is the result of palatalization before /i/, an extremely common phenomenon among languages. ❋ Unknown (2009)
The names shared between Etruscan and Latin show no such palatalization either in these stops. ❋ Unknown (2009)
Rob: "So it seems clear to me that the former is the result of palatalization before /i/, an extremely common phenomenon among languages." ❋ Unknown (2009)
I never once contested this and that Japanese chi is the result of palatalization is of course an inarguable fact. ❋ Unknown (2009)
However Tocharian shows palatalization nonetheless and I suppose I should explain myself better in the pdf that I'm also including satem-like areal influence as well. ❋ Unknown (2008)
Hahaha, yes, and curiously also Tocharian had its own seperate palatalization as it moved eastwards. ❋ Unknown (2008)
Take an Iranic form such as *seftem; allophonic palatalization before *e is likely there considering its effects on Aryan velars. ❋ Unknown (2008)
PSem *waynu PIE *wóino- or are a reflection of palatalization of the preceding consonant in the PSem word e.g. ❋ Unknown (2008)
Here's the message: Glen Gordon, Velars and palatalization (was: RE: tied Re: Albanian (1)) (Jan 23 2004). ❋ Unknown (2008)
Darya Kavitskaya in Compensatory Lengthening: Phonetics, Phonology, Diachrony (2002) relates her own story about perceptual metathesis on page 48 in footnote 8: "Indeed, in teaching Russian to American students, I noticed many instances of palatalization of the consonant being heard as some kind of diphthongal property of the preceding vowel, for example, [banʲa] 'bath' was misheard and pronounced as [baʲnʲa] or even [bajna]." (link here). ❋ Unknown (2008)
So it appears very strongly that the source of all instances of Proto-Altaic *r₂ lies in the early palatalization originating from a neighbouring *i in a Pre-Altaic stage. ❋ Unknown (2008)
Glen: Hahaha, yes, and curiously also Tocharian had its own seperate palatalization as it moved eastwards. ❋ Unknown (2008)
On a side note, I wonder if the palatalization seen in Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian is an areal feature. ❋ Unknown (2008)
